Which of the following is correct? 

“In the beginning <H7225> God <H430> created <H1254> <H853> the heaven <H8064> and <H853> the earth <H776>

And the earth <H776> was <H1961> without form <H8414>, and void <H922>; and darkness <H2822> was upon the face <H6440> of the deep <H8415>. And the Spirit <H7307> of God <H430> moved <H7363> upon <H5921> the face <H6440> of the waters <H4325>.” (Gen 1:1-2)

or

“In the beginning <H7225> God <H430> created <H1254> <H853> the heaven <H8064> and <H853> the earth <H776>.  

And the earth <H776> was <H1961> ruined and desolate <H922>; and darkness <H2822> was upon the face <H6440> of the deep <H8415>. And the Spirit <H7307> of God <H430> moved <H7363> upon <H5921> the face <H6440> of the waters <H4325>.” (Gen 1:1-2)


If you chose the second version, you would agree with the Gap Theorists who also insert the following story between the two verses to justify their word change and the meaning:


“In the beginning <H7225> God <H430> created <H1254> <H853> the heaven <H8064> and <H853> the earth <H776>. (Gen 1:1)

 

 And the earth’s was in a perfect state

 and God gave Lucifer rule and reign over

 it. But because of his rebellion, God

 destroyed and wasted his original

 creation.

 

And the earth <H776> became ruined and desolate <H922>; and darkness <H2822> was upon the face <H6440> of the deep <H8415>. And the Spirit <H7307> of God <H430> moved <H7363> upon <H5921> the face <H6440> of the waters <H4325>.” (Gen 1:2)


How did this come about?

Good question my friend, for that, the gappist turns to

“For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the LORD; and there is none else.” (Is 45:18).

I don’t get it!

You see it is very clear to the gappist (not to anyone else), that this proves that God destroyed his first creation. You see, they say because of Lucifer’s rebellion, God destroyed the earth so that it became vain and it became ruined and desolate! And that’s why he started again recreating his first destroyed creation, because he wanted it to be inhabited by people.

 

But that’s ridiculous, the plain reading has the opposite meaning!

I agree with you and so do countless saints over the past two thousand years. The common sense reading is this: God didn’t just simply create the earth out of vanity, but he made it to be inhabited by people.

The Bible meaning for he created it not in vain is that God created a perfect earth, and rather than it just be for his vanity or something pretty full of animals, there was a purpose in that he formed it to be inhabited with people ie he didn’t want it to be in vain. The opposite word to ‘vain’ is ‘inhabited’. The phrase does not speak of a condition of the earth but an intention by God.

The gappists’ meaning is that as God didn’t create an earth of chaos, it must have become a ruined waste.

 

Where would such a fantasy come from?

Now of course you couldn’t just dream this up – you’d have to be taught it.

The originator, Thomas Chalmers, a Scottish Presbyterian Moderator (and who better than a saved man to be satan’s dupe), was a Freemason and a religious Gnostic who was well versed with the Freemasonry beliefs of Hindu cosmic cycles.

In fact all religions, other than Christianity, promote the multiple ‘ruin-reconstruction cycles’ of the earth – as evidenced by the latest Mayan fiasco about December 2012.

That’s why God got Moses to counteract this pagan belief, by writing the straight forward and linear account of creation of no chaos and no re-creation!

Chalmers, while struggling to marry the newly pronounced and overwhelming tsunami of the ‘truths’ of evolution in the mid 1800’s, with a literal six day creation, ‘an angel of light’ appeared (2Cor 11:14), and gave him a hand.

 

But what about ‘without form and void’ in Jer 4:23? Doesn’t it refer to the gap?

Jeremiah’s prophecy refers to the upcoming destruction of Judah and Jerusalem by the Babylonian armies and does not refer to God destroying his perfect creation in Genesis.

The phrase ‘without form and void’ appears to imply some connection between Gen 1:2 and Jer 4:23, however the ‘earth’ mentioned in the Jeremiah chapter (see Jeremiah 4:7, 20, 27) is the local land of Judah and not the whole earth as in the Genesis account.

 

Jeremiah 4:23-29

23. I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light.

24. I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly.

25. I beheld, and, lo, there was no man, and all the birds of the heavens were fled.

26. I beheld, and, lo, the fruitful place was a

wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the LORD, and by his fierce anger.

27. For thus hath the LORD said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end.

28. For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black; because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it.

29. The whole city shall flee for the noise of the horsemen and bowmen; they shall go into thickets, and climb up upon the rocks: every city shall be forsaken, and not a man dwell therein. (Jer 4:23-26,27-29)

 

The plain reading of Jeremiah 4:23-26,27-29

1. Jeremiah says that I beheld, and, lo, there was no man he doesn’t say that man hadn’t been created at this time – simply there were no men to be found and verse 29 explains why. ‘The whole city shall flee for the noise of the horsemen and bowmen; they shall go into thickets, and climb up upon the rocks: every city shall be forsaken, and not a man dwell therein.’

 

Why can’t Jeremiah see any men? They’ve have fled the city because of the impending threat and dreadful noise of an invading army.


2. The phrase ‘all the birds of the heavens were fled’ doesn’t mean that birds hadn’t been created at this time. The birds had simply flown away. Why? Because of the approaching noise of the horsemen and bowmen’ in v29.

 

3. The phrase ‘they had no light’ doesn’t mean that ‘light’ hadn’t been created, but only that they had none ie no fires, candles or lanterns. Why? Similar to an air raid, a city puts out all lights hoping the bombs won’t hit. Here in Jeremiah, the people have fled under cover of darkness, not wanting to show the invading army where they are.


4. The phrase ‘I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void’ of Jeremiah is not the same as the use in Genesis 1:2.

In Jeremiah, there are mountains and hills’ so it can’t be the without form of Genesis 1:2 which is formless water.

The ‘without form’ of Jeremiah is the description of the landscape under cover of darkness – there being no light and the heavens above being black. The whole vision appears as ‘formless landscape’ to Jeremiah.

The use of the word ‘void’ here, simply means empty as the people have fled from the invading army.

5. The phrase ’all the cities thereof were broken down doesn’t refer to a pre-Adamite civilisation. The cities referred to here were broken down as the result of the invading army that caused their destruction.

But don’t Scofield, Larkin and Ruckman believe it!

I am aware they do.

Conclusion…

Marc Bates, in 2000, wrote the following:

“In a famous speech given by Winston Churchill in 1941, he describes the heroics of the pilots that won the battle of Britain as ‘their finest hour’. Now when I (Marc Bates), talk about the heroics of my favourite football team (in 2000) as ‘their finest hour’, everyone knows the allusion I am referring to. 

But the gappist would have us believe that Winston Churchill was referring to my football team when he used the term ‘their finest hour.’

Sadly, you can make the Bible say anything you want it to say.

Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly
dividing the word of truth.

(2 Timothy 2:15)




Harley Hitchcock

www.
AustralianBibleMinistries
.com


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