“THE
MUSLIM
DILEMMA: (also
JW’s, Mormons etc)
QUESTION:
“Using the scripture of John 1:18, “that no man hath seen God at any
time”,
Muslims say that Jesus can not be God … are they right?!”
ANSWER:
“No”
The bottom
line is this … God has two forms … as an unseen Spirit (John
4:24) … and
that in the likeness of men … which is a physical seen man
(Philippians 2:7) … as stated with the following two scriptures:
“Who,
being
in the form of God (as a
Spirit), thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made
himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant,
and
was made in the likeness of men (as a physical man):”
(Philippians
2:6-7)
“And without controversy (there is
no argument whatsoever)
great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh
…” (1 Timothy 3:16)
So of
course, no man hath seen the invisible God … but men have seen … indeed
touched
… the physical God … as stated by John as follows:
“That
which
was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen
with our
eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled,
of
the Word of life;” (1 John 1:1).
Yes Dear
Reader, Christ in heaven was called the Word … being invisible
to the
naked eye, but then “… the Word was made flesh and dwelt
among us …”
(John 1:14) … and he was then visible.
And so
Dear
Reader, as with all heresies that are based on one
verse … at
first glance, they seem to be credible … until explained by scores of
others … as
with the following three:
“In
the
beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God.”
(John 1:1)
“For there
are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and
the Holy
Ghost: and these three are one.” (1 John 5:7)
Indeed,
Christ calls himself Jehovah with “… Before Abraham was, “I
am.”
(John 8:58).
Was Christ
a
liar? No … he knew no sin and did no sin
(2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22).
Was Christ
a
lunatic? No … lunatics perform all manner of sin (Matthew 4:24).
This only
leaves to one conclusion, that Christ is the Lord God
… being
the invisible God manifest in the flesh
(1 Timothy 3:16).
So Dear
Reader, both are correct … that no man hath seen the invisible
God at any time (John 1:18), and man has seen the visible God
(1 John
1:1).
QED
Harley
Hitchcock
March
2024
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